Monday, June 30

Slavery in the Bible...

I am currently engaged in a conversation with a lawyer (via a message board) about slavery and the Bible is wrong about slavery.

Genesis 9:25-27
25 And he said, Cursed [be] Canaan [son of Ham] a servant of servants [lowest of servants] shall he be unto his brethren.
26 And he said, Blessed [be] the LORD God of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant.
27 God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant.

The word used for "servant" is ebed (eh' ved) which amongst Hebrews was a slave.

The word was first recorded when Noah who, instead of bestowing any type of blessing, cursed Ham's [son] descendants saying they should be "slave of slaves" or "servant of servants" of Shem and Japheth.

Noah had no slaves. Those only aboard the Ark were family.

How did Noah become acquainted with the word and the nature of slavery?

I am having trouble understanding the point you are looking to make.  Could you clarify?

 I thought the argument is... what the Bible says about slavery is incorrect, wrong, and is an error. 

Slavery is well established in the OT, possibly before the flood, and the NT doesn't make any commandment to directly abolish the practice.

If the Bible is, in fact, wrong about slavery, a practice that directly impacts much of the Bible, especially the OT, would not the errors surrounding slavery render other scripture(s) [book of Exodus, Passover, and the Mosaic Covenant] wrong, incorrect, an error, and thus not God's Word?
So what are your personal feelings on the matter?

1.) Is the Bible's view on slavery consistent with God's Word?
2.) If so, do you then condone slavery, since it is God's Word?
3.) Or do you disagree with God?
4.) Or is there confusion in our interpretation of what God intended to call slavery?
5.) Or are there passages in the Bible which are not God's Word and influenced by the culture and prejudices of the time and individual?

I thought you were interested in a discussion about God's Word. You seem more interested in conducting a deposition to produce "undisputed facts". With that in mind, I'll answer, being fully aware all depos are a game of "Gotcha"...

1. "Slavery is well established in the OT, possibly before the flood, and the NT doesn't make any commandment to directly abolish the practice." God, regarding slavery, is consistent with His own Word, proven by Genesis 15:13 and Psalm 105:17-19.

2. I personally do not condone slavery.

3. I worship and obey God's Word as best I can. For example, God, among others things, commands me "to keep the Sabbath holy" and "forgive my enemies" and "search earnestly for Him" and "have no other Gods".

4. Confusion on the nature of slavery as evidenced by the scripture(s) you have posted? No. I think I understand the scripture(s) you posted.

5. All passages are the Word of God. The Bible declares itself to be the Word of God. (2 Peter 1:16-21; 2 Timothy 3:16) not the partial Word of God.

The Bible is a unified, coherent revelation from God; it does not contradict itself. If my understanding of difficult passages are at odds with the teaching of Scripture, I choose to exercise humility and consider the possibility that my understanding is flawed.

July 7th... there has yet to a response to my last comment. 

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